Title: 1=2?
Description: But how could it?
ubernuke - February 23, 2005 05:09 AM (GMT)
Let's say that a=b. So
ab = aČ subtract bČ from both sides
-bČ -bČ
ab- bČ = aČ- bČ factor
b(a- B ) = (a+B )(a- B ) divide both sides by (a-B )
b = a+b
substitute 1 in for the variables and you get
1 = 1+1
1 = 2 :o
My friend showed me this at school. When I figured it out I couldn't believe that I hadn't seen it sooner.
So can you disprove the above theory that 1=2?
Haha whoops, in my original post, all the B )s were replaced by B)s
Mal_Ganis - February 23, 2005 06:30 AM (GMT)
'A' and 'B' cannot both equal one.
Flarestar - February 23, 2005 07:46 AM (GMT)
yeah they can its a magic 1
ubernuke - February 23, 2005 02:55 PM (GMT)
I'm not very far into math (Doing Geometry this year), but that's not to say I'm stupid- I've never gotten anything but an A on my report cards.
So I don't know if there's some rule saying that two variables can't be 1, but for this problem, just pretend that they are. There is a different problem with the method I showed to prove that 1=2.
Dark Alkaiser - February 23, 2005 03:16 PM (GMT)
This: b(a- B ) = (a+B )(a- B ) divide both sides by (a-B )
Is where the probem is, a - b = 0. Dividing by zero is not poassible, so a correct answer cannor be reached after that has been done. :D
Spikerslayer - February 23, 2005 03:44 PM (GMT)
hmm if A=1 then B must not be 1 or it is A
Dark Alkaiser - February 23, 2005 03:50 PM (GMT)
It is fine to have two variable stand for the same number. a + b = c where c = 2. One of the infinite answers to this question is a = 1 and b = 1. My reason for why it doesn't work is correct.
Mark - February 23, 2005 04:58 PM (GMT)
*Yawn* I disproved this twice already... :P
OK, once again :rolleyes:
b = a+b That there is countered in the beginning of your statement, A = B. If A = B, then B cannot = A + B, which also concludes, when put together, 1 = 1+1, but take it apart and you have a false statement, so that B /=/(doesn't equal) A+B, thus disproving this theory once again :P
Dark Alkaiser - February 23, 2005 05:02 PM (GMT)
But the only reason that part was able to appear in the first place, is because he divided by zero.
Mark - February 23, 2005 05:06 PM (GMT)
Zero isn't allowed to be a denominator :P So, in any case, it's wrong anyways :P
Dark Alkaiser - February 23, 2005 05:09 PM (GMT)
That's what I've been saying, you can't divide by zero, so you can't divide by a - b.
ubernuke - February 25, 2005 12:43 AM (GMT)
Yes, Dark Alkaiser's answer of dividing by 0 is correct.
Spikerslayer - February 26, 2005 10:11 PM (GMT)
yea but that applys to anything
0+0=0
0-0=0
0/0=0
0x0/0+0-0=0
so that relli doesnt dispoorve it since 0 has no value where as with a vale it works
Maniac - March 1, 2005 07:26 PM (GMT)
It is just a conventional error.
0 can sometimes confuse algebra quite a bit. 431231(A-B) would equal A(A-B) but also A^2(A-B) or 2A(A-B). The problem is brought on when you factorise it.
ramsay - July 22, 2005 08:15 AM (GMT)
Dark Alkaiser - July 23, 2005 03:54 AM (GMT)
Yeah, go ahead and put 0/0 into a calcuator, you will not get an answer.
ramsay - July 25, 2005 08:25 PM (GMT)
Oh dear, looks like the possy outsmartened ubernuke, lol